Page Produced by Ben Mueller

 

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Recall the following properties of logarithms: 

 

  1. Ln (x) + Ln (y) = Ln (xy)
  2. Ln (x) – Ln (y) = Ln (x/y)
  3. Ln (x^2) = 2 Ln (x) or more generally, Ln (x^b) = b Ln (x)
  4. Ln (e) = 1
  5. Ln (1) = 0

 

Note:  Ln (x) is only defined when the value of x is greater than zero.  Also, the range of the function Ln (x) is negative infinity to infinity. 

 

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These properties will help in understanding the following mapping. 

 

Let’s define a mapping F such that:

  1. F maps from the group of real numbers under multiplication to the group of real numbers under addition. 
  2. F(x) = Ln (x)

 

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Application Problem (Created by Ben Mueller):

 

Use properties of logarithms to show that mapping F is an isomorphism.

 

Solution:

 

Part 1 (Showing that F is a homomorphism): 

 

We must show that F(x*y) = F(x) + F(y).  By our mapping, F(x*y) = Ln (x*y).  Then by properties of logarithms, Ln (x*y) = Ln (x) + Ln (y).  Our mapping then tells us that

Ln (x) + Ln (y) = F(x) + F(y) and we have shown that F (x*y) = F(x) + F(y) completing part 1 showing that F is a homomorphism.

 

Part 2 (Showing that F is injective or 1-1):

 

Let’s start by assuming that F(x) = F(y).  Then we have that F(x)=Ln(x) and F(y)= Ln(y).  Thus if F(x) = F(y), it is true that Ln(x) = Ln(y).  By the horizontal line test of the graph of Ln(x), Ln(x) = Ln(y) implies that x = y.   This completes part 2 of our proof that our mapping is injective or 1-1.

 

Part 3 (Showing that F is surjective or onto):

 

Here we want to show that for every real number r, there is an x such that F(x) = r.  Now if F(x) = r, then Ln(x) = r.  Since the range of the graph of the function Ln(x) is from negative infinity to infinity, this is true for all values of r.  This completes part 3 of our proof that F is surjective or onto.

 

Application Problem 2: 

 

If it exists, find the kernel of our mapping F.

 

Solution: 

 

The co-domain of mapping F is the group of real numbers under addition.  The identity element in our co-domain is 0.  Thus we want to find all real numbers x such that F(x) = 0 in our mapping F.  Because F(x) = Ln (x), our problem becomes finding all real numbers such that Ln (x) = 0.  Ln (x) = 0 is only true when x = 1 and thus Ker F = {1}. 

 

Interesting note:  In our mapping F, 1 was the identity element in our domain (group of all real numbers under multiplication) and 0 in our co-domain (group of all real numbers under addition).  Thus we had that F(e) = e’ (e being identity in domain and e’ in co-domain. 

 

Here is a proof to supplement our above note:

 

Let F be a homomorphism from the group G to the group G’.  If e denotes the identity element in G and e’ denotes the identity element in G’, then prove that F(e)=e’.

 

Proof (Written by Ben Mueller):  Since e is the identity element, ee = e and F(e) = F(ee).  Now, F is a homomorphism which means that F(ee) = F(e)F(e).  From this, F(e) = F(e)F(e) and this implies that F(e) is the identity element in G’ (F(e) is an element in G’).  Finally, since the identity element in a group must be unique, e’ = F(e)./(Proof complete)

 

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